Consider zero function on $\mathbb{R}$. If we use Lebesgue integral this will be $0\cdot\infty$. How is it defined? In analysis, we have to work it out with infinitesimals, so it is not necessarily zero.
Also on the other hand, if we integrate infinity on a null set the result is also zero. But what if I integrate Dirac function / Dirac comb?
I think we define this quantity, for any set of infinite measure, to be $0$ (and I just consulted Bass's Real Analysis for Graduate Students, Ch.6, which agrees with me). This is convenient because we want examples like yours to come out to $0$.