This is an awfully specific question that is extremely similar to previous question (linked below). This problem utilized a quality of the delta function that allows an indefinite integral to be collapsed:
L[sin(t)d(t-pi)] where d is the delta function and L is Laplace transform. From what I understand:
L[f(t)]=F(s)= 0~inf[sin(t)d(t-pi)e^(-st)dt This can be simplified by characteristics of delta function: sin(pi)e^(-spi), but this equals 0.
Is this the correct answer?
**I am deeply sorry for the lack of formatting. If someone can instruct me how to include proper formatting, it would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!