The function $\dfrac1{1-x}$, equal to $$1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \cdots,$$ can also be developed according to the series $$1 + \frac{x}{1 + x} + \frac{1\cdot2\cdot x^2}{(1 + x)(1 + 2x)} + \frac{1\cdot2\cdot3\cdot x^3}{(1 + x)(1 + 2x)(1 + 3x)} + \cdots $$ when $x$ is positive and smaller than $1$.
I know the first series and it is easy to obtain it. But the second series is strange. It is not a power series, not a Taylor series. How does one obtain this series?
The series you are asking about is $$ S(x) \!:=\! 1 \!+\! \frac{x}{1\!+\!x} \!+\! \frac{1\cdot 2\cdot x^2}{(1\!+\!x)(1\!+\!2x)} \!+\! \frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot x^3}{(1\!+\!x)(1\!+\!2x)(1\!+\!3x)} \!+\! \cdots. \tag{1} $$ One of the first things to do in such a series is to find the ratio of consecutive terms which gives the sequence $$ \frac{x}{1+x},\;\; \frac{2x}{1+2x},\;\; \frac{3x}{1+3x}\;\; \dots,\;\; \frac{nx}{1+nx},\;\; \dots $$ which is a rational function in $\,n\,$ and this is the characteristic property of a Hypergeometric series.
Assuming $\,x\ne 0\,$, let $\, y := 1/x.\,$ Then $$ S(x) \!=\! 1 \!+\! \frac{1!}{(1\!+\!y)} \!+\! \frac{2!}{(1\!+\!y)(2\!+\!y)} \!+\! \frac{3!}{(1\!+\!y)(2\!+\!y)(3\!+\!y)} \!+\! \cdots. \tag{2} $$ This is a simple Hypergeometric series $$ S(x) = {}_2F_1(1,1;1+1/x;1) = 1/(1-x) \tag{3} $$ where the left side series has a complicated domain of convergence and the right side has a simple pole at $\,x=1.\,$
Your question was
Quoting from the Wikipedia article:
In this particular case, assume the Ansatz $$ f(x) \!:=\! a_0 \!+\! \frac{a_1\,x}{1\!+\!x} \!+\! \frac{a_2\,x^2}{(1\!+\!x)(1\!+\!2x)} \!+\! \frac{a_3\,x^3}{(1\!+\!x)(1\!+\!2x)(1\!+\!3x)} \!+\! \cdots. \tag{4} $$ Then by expanding into power series in $\,x\,$ we have the result $$ f(x) \!=\! a_0 \!+\! a_1\,x \!+\! (a_2\!-\!a_1)x^2 \!+\! (a_3\!-\!3a_2\!+\!a_1)x^3 \!+\! (a_4\!-\!6a_3\!+\!7a_2\!-\!a_1)x^4 \!+\! \cdots \tag{5} $$ which gets the power series coefficients of $\,f(x)\,$ from those of the series in equation $(4)$.
For this particular hypergeometric series, there is another simple method to try. Define the partial sums $$ S_n := \sum_{k=0}^n k!/(1+1/x)_k. \tag{6} $$ Then we can observe that $$ S_n = P_n x^n/(1+1/x)_n \tag{7} $$ where $\,P_n\,$ is a polynomial of degree $\,n\,$ with positive integer coefficients appearing in OEIS sequence A109822. For example $$ P_1\!=\! 1\!+\!2x, P_2\!=\! 1\!+\!4x\!+\!6x^2, P_3 = 1\!+\!7x\!+\!18x^2\!+\!24x^3. \tag{8} $$
But notice that the same coefficients appear in OEIS sequence A096747 which has an extra $\,(n+1)!\,$ for each row. This suggests looking at $$ 1/(1-x) - S_n = (n+1)! \frac{x}{(1-x)(1+1/x)_{n+1}}. \tag{9} $$ This equality of two rational functions can be proved by induction using telescoping sums.