I want to figure out whether or not the following function is "Smooth". As far as I understand, a smooth function is means that it is C^∞
But how do I go about it with this function:
Let f : [0, π] → R^2 defined by f(t) = (sin(t)^2, cos2(t)^2).
Is f smooth?
Since each component is a $C^\infty$ function, $f$ is a $C^\infty$ function.