So I'm rather new to vector/3d mathematics so i'm probably missing something but...
If we have a point p at location (0, 0, 0) (the origin) from which a vector v departs, which is defined as <0, 0, 1> (so the vector only travels in the z-direction).
To get the plane of which v is the normal-vector I could use the following formula:
- a1(x - x0) + a2(y - y0) + a3(z - z0) = 0
if we fill it in we get:
- 0(x - 0) + 0(y - 0) + 1(z - 0) = 0
- (z-0) = 0
- z = 0
This plane should be a plane that spans the entirity of the x and y axis and does not move into the z-direction at all. Now, if we have the point p2 = (1, 2, 3) with vector v2 = <0, 0, 1> then we know that v2 from p2 should not intersect the plane that we have made. Yet, when I parametrize v2, fill the z in in the plane-formula then I get a formula that is solvable;
V2 parametrized is:
- <1 + 0t, 2 + 0t, 3 + 1t>
If we substitute x, y and z in our plane-formula then we get...
- 3 + 1t = 0
- t = -3
And if I feed this back into the parametrized vector then the point of intersection is:
- (1 + 0*-3, 2 + 0*-3, 3 + 1*-3) =
- (1, 2, 0)
The problem here is, there should be no point of intersection at all... What am I doing wrong?
Sorry if I made any noob-errors.
Your calculations are right, it does indeed intersect. Try drawing a picture to help your intuition! In this case, the vector emanating from $p_2$ moves up and down only in the z-direction, so must intersect the plane $z=0$ at some point
This is guaranteed because $v2$ is the normal vector, if you want to guarantee that the line doesn't intersect the plane, try using a parallel vector