How to prove that $\prod\limits_{n=1}^\infty \cos^2(\frac{1}{n^2})$ is convergent ?
I have got the discussion here but could not figure out if we are asked to prove the convergence, through simple way how can we achieve that?
Thanks in advance
How to prove that $\prod\limits_{n=1}^\infty \cos^2(\frac{1}{n^2})$ is convergent ?
I have got the discussion here but could not figure out if we are asked to prove the convergence, through simple way how can we achieve that?
Thanks in advance
On
I would use two things :
First : $1-cos^2(\frac{1}{n^2})$ ~ $\frac{1}{n^4} $ , when n->$+\infty$
And : ln(1+u) ~ u , when u->0
If you let $P_n$ be your product from 1 to n, consider ln($P_n$):
$ln(P_n) = \sum_{k=1}^n ln(cos^2(\frac{1}{k^2})) = \sum_{k=1}^n ln(1-(1-cos^2(\frac{1}{k^2}))) $
$ln(1-(1-cos^2(\frac{1}{k^2}))) = -\frac{1}{n^4} +o(\frac{1}{n^4})$
So the series converges, i.e $ln(P_n)$ converges, and $P_n$ does as well
If you only want convergence(for an infinite product of positive numbers smaller than $1$ it means telling whether the product is equal to $0$), here is a simple way:
$$\prod_{n=1}^\infty \cos^2(\frac{1}{n^2}) = \prod_{n=1}^\infty(1- \sin^2(\frac{1}{n^2}))$$.
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \sin^2(\dfrac{1}{n^2}) < \infty$ since $\sin^2{\frac{1}{n^2}}\sim \frac{1}{n^4}$
So we know that $\prod_{n=1}^\infty \cos^2(\frac{1}{n^2}) > 0$.
I used the fact: If all $a_n \in (0,1)$, $\displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^{+\infty} (1- a_n)$ is non-zero if and only if $\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} a_n < +\infty$