In this post, It is mentioned that $$ \int_0^{\pi/2} x^2 \ln^2(2\cos{x}) \mathrm{d}x = \frac{11 \pi}{16} \zeta(4) $$ is easy to evaluate.
I thought it by doing integration by parts but if I assume $x^2$ as $1st$ function and $\ln^2(2\cos{x})$ as $2nd$ function but problem with this is that, We can't integrate $\ln^2(2\cos{x})$ directly.
I also tried to use Fourier series of $\ln(2\cos{x})$ $$ \ln(2 \cos(x)) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} \cos(2 n x)$$ But it didn't work as well.
Please guide me how to solve it ? Thank you very much!!
We will prove
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(2\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx = \frac{11\pi^{5}}{1440}.$$
Proof. Let the given integral be $I$. Then $$ \eqalign{ I&=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(2\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx \cr &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(\frac{e^{2ix}+1}{e^{ix}}\right)dx \cr &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\left(\ln\left(e^{2ix}+1\right)-ix\right)^{2}dx \cr &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(1+e^{2ix}\right)dx-2i\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{3}\ln\left(1+e^{2ix}\right)dx-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{4}dx \cr &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(1+e^{2ix}\right)dx-2i\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{3}\ln\left(1+e^{2ix}\right)dx-\frac{\pi^{5}}{160} \cr } $$
For the first integral, let $f(z) = z^2\log^2\left(1+e^{2iz}\right)$ and define a rectangular contour
$$C=\left\{z\in\mathbb{C} : \Re(z) \in \left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right] \wedge \Im(z) \in \left[0,R\right]\right\}$$
that we will traverse counterclockwise around. By Cauchy's Residue Theorem, we get
$$0 = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}f\left(z\right)dz+\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}+iR}f\left(z\right)dz+\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}+iR}^{iR}f\left(z\right)dz+\int_{iR}^{0}f\left(z\right)dz.$$
With some grunt work, the third integral will vanish as $R\to\infty$. The fourth integral will also vanish when we take $\Re$ on both sides. As $R \to \infty$, we get
$$ \eqalign{ \Re\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}f\left(z\right)dz &= -\Re\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}+i\infty}f\left(z\right)dz \cr &= -\Re i\int_{0}^{R}f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+ix\right)dx \cr &= -\Re i\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+ix\right)^{2}\log^{2}\left(1+e^{2i\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+ix\right)}\right)dx \cr &= \pi\int_{0}^{\infty}x\ln^{2}\left(1-e^{-2x}\right)dx \cr &= \pi\int_{0}^{\infty}x\left(-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{e^{-2nx}}{n}\right)^{2}dx \cr &= \pi\int_{0}^{\infty}x\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{e^{-2nx}}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{e^{-2kx}}{k}dx \cr &= \sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\pi}{nk}\int_{0}^{\infty}xe^{-2\left(n+k\right)x}dx \cr &= \sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\pi}{nk}\left(\frac{1}{4\left(n+k\right)^{2}}\right) \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(n+k\right)^{2}-n^{2}-k^{2}}{n^{2}k^{2}\left(n+k\right)^{2}} \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^{2}\left(n+k\right)^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}\left(n+k\right)^{2}} \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\sum_{n=k+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^{2}n^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}} \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n,k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{1\le k<n<\infty}^{ }\frac{1}{k^{2}n^{2}}-\frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{1\le n<k<\infty}^{ }\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}} \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\sum_{n=k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}k^{2}} \cr &= \frac{\pi}{8}\left(\frac{\pi^{4}}{90}\right) \cr &= \frac{\pi^{5}}{720}. \cr } $$
Additionally, we have
$$ \eqalign{ \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{3}\ln\left(1+e^{2ix}\right)dx &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{3}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}e^{2nix}}{n}dx \cr &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{n}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{3}e^{2nix}dx \cr &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{n}\left(\frac{6+e^{i\pi n}\left(-6+\pi n\left(\pi n\left(3-i\pi n\right)+6i\right)\right)}{16n^{4}}\right) \cr &= \frac{3}{8}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{n^{5}}+\frac{3}{8}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{5}}-\frac{3\pi i}{8}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{4}}-\frac{3\pi^{2}}{8}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{3}}+\frac{i\pi^{3}}{16}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}} \cr &= \frac{3}{8}\left(\frac{15}{16}\zeta{(5)}\right)+\frac{3}{8}\zeta{(5)}-\frac{3\pi i}{8}\left(\frac{\pi^{4}}{90}\right)-\frac{3\pi^{2}}{16}\zeta{(3)}+\frac{i\pi^{3}}{16}\left(\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}\right) \cr &= \frac{i\pi^{5}}{160}+\frac{93\zeta{(5)}}{128}-\frac{3\pi^{2}\zeta{(3)}}{16}. \cr } $$
Gathering everything together and taking the real part of $I$, we get
$$ \Re I = \frac{\pi^{5}}{720}-\Re 2i\left(\frac{i\pi^{5}}{160}+\frac{93\zeta{(5)}}{128}-\frac{3\pi^{2}\zeta{(3)}}{16}\right)-\frac{\pi^{5}}{160} = \frac{11\pi^{5}}{1440}. $$
In conclusion,
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^{2}\ln^{2}\left(2\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx = \frac{11\pi^{5}}{1440}.$$
Q.E.D.