As is known, one can consider area under the curve as area that consists of infinitesimally small areas bounded by $dx$ & $dy$ , in general terms.
Why doesn't there exist an area that equal to $r+\varepsilon$ where $r$ is real number and $\varepsilon$ is infinitesimal?
Eg : We can have $dA = dx \times dy$ & integrate it that within limits to get over-all area $A$. When $dA$ is itself infinitesimal , why should $A$ always be real number , without infinitesimals ?
How to explain that area under the curve is real number?
Downvoters, please explain where did I go wrong?
Thanks.

I am assuming that you are working in the modern framework of nonstandard analysis, then there is no problem: the rectangle with diagonally opposite corners $(0, 0)$ and $(r + \varepsilon, 1)$ has area $r + \varepsilon$. We can't expect area elements in nonstandard analysis to be standard reals.