I found this question on a past exam:
I know how to find a confidence interval with one mean: $\bar x \pm z_{\alpha/2} \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt n}$
and I also know how to do it with two means however that also requires a sample standard variation, so I'm not sure how to even start this question.
I though maybe: $\bar x_1- \bar x_2 = 0$
however I'm not sure, any help would be appreciated thank you.

You are asked to find a confidence interval for the difference of two population proportions.
Consider a general problem in this connection:
You can adopt the following methods to solve your particular problem.
A usual approach is to construct an asymptotic Wald-type C.I. by assuming $n_1,n_2$ to be large enough.
Let $\hat p_i=\frac{X_i}{n_i}$ be the observed proportion of success, $i=1,2$.
Then we have the pivot $$\frac{\hat p_1-\hat p_2-(p_1-p_2)}{\sqrt{\frac{p_1(1-p_1)}{n_1}+\frac{p_2(1-p_2)}{n_2}}}\stackrel{L}\longrightarrow N(0,1)$$
An asymptotic C.I. of $p_1-p_2$ with confidence coefficient approximately $1-\alpha$ based on the above pivot has confidence limits $$\hat p_1-\hat p_2\mp z_{\alpha/2}\sqrt{\frac{\hat p_1(1-\hat p_1)}{n_1}+\frac{\hat p_2(1-\hat p_2)}{n_2}}$$
, where $z_{\alpha/2}$ is such that $P(Z>z_{\alpha/2})=\frac{\alpha}{2}$ with $Z\sim N(0,1)$.
Using the data given, Minitab software gives the following result:
Another approach is to use a variance stabilising transformation on $\hat p_i$ and find a Bonferroni confidence region for $(p_1,p_2)$.
Here we have the pivots
$$2\sqrt{n_i}\left(\sin^{-1}\sqrt{\hat p_i}-\sin^{-1}\sqrt{p_i}\right)\stackrel{L}\longrightarrow N(0,1)\quad,\,i=1,2$$
It can be verified that a large sample C.I. for $p_i$ with confidence coefficient approximately $1-\frac{\alpha}{2}$ has confidence limits $$\sin^2\left(\sin^{-1}\sqrt{\hat p_i}\mp \frac{z_{\alpha/4}}{2\sqrt{n_i}}\right)\quad,\,i=1,2$$
So for some $L_i,U_i$ we have approximately $$P\left[L_i\le p_i\le U_i\right]= 1-\frac{\alpha}{2}\quad,\,i=1,2$$
Therefore,
\begin{align} P\left[\underbrace{L_1\le p_1\le U_1}_{A_1}\,,\,\underbrace{L_2\le p_2\le U_2}_{A_2}\right]&=P(A_1\cap A_2) \\&\ge P(A_1)+P(A_2)-1 \\&=1-\alpha \end{align}
This is the same as saying $$P\left[L_1-U_2\le p_1-p_2\le U_1-L_2\right]\ge 1-\alpha$$
That is, $[L_1-U_2,U_1-L_2]$ is an asymptotic C.I. for $p_1-p_2$ with confidence coefficient at least $1-\alpha$.