I need to evaluate the following integral(Inverse Hankel Transform of $\cos(k)$)
$$ f(r) = \int^{\infty}_{0} k\cos(k) J_{0}(kr) \space dk$$ where $$ J_{0}(x) $$ is the zeroth order Bessel function. Any help is highly appreciated.
I need to evaluate the following integral(Inverse Hankel Transform of $\cos(k)$)
$$ f(r) = \int^{\infty}_{0} k\cos(k) J_{0}(kr) \space dk$$ where $$ J_{0}(x) $$ is the zeroth order Bessel function. Any help is highly appreciated.
On
Mathematica gives this result, which is expressed in terms of the Meijer G-function: $$f(r)= 2 \sqrt{\pi}\, G_{1,1}^{0,1}\!\left(\frac{1}{r^2}\biggl| \begin{array}{c} 1 \\ \frac{3}{2} \\ \end{array} \right)\,.$$ In explicit form, this becomes $f(r)=\begin{cases} {-1\over(1-r^2)^{3/2}}\,,&\text{for $0<r<1\,,$}\\ 0\,,&\text{for $r>1\,.$}\end{cases}$
Additionally, the program package is able to produce a symbolic solution for the $\nu^{\text{th}}$-order inverse Hankel transforms of the cosine function: $$f_{\nu}(r)=\int_0^\infty k \cos(k) J_\nu(k r)\,dr= 2\sqrt\pi\, G_{2,2}^{1,1}\,\left(\frac{1}{r^2}\biggl| \begin{array}{c} 1-\frac{\nu }{2},1+\frac{\nu }{2} \\ 1,\frac{3}{2} \\ \end{array} \right).$$ This can be written in explicit form as $$f_{\nu}(r)=\begin{cases} \frac{-\cos \left(\frac{\pi \nu }{2}\right)\left(\frac{r}{\sqrt{1-r^2}+1} \right)^{\nu } \left(\nu\sqrt{1-r^2}+1\right)} {\left(1-r^2\right)^{3/2}}\,,&\text{for $0<r<1\,,$}\\ \frac{\nu \cos \left(\nu \csc ^{-1}(r)\right)}{r^2-1}+ \frac{\sin \left(\nu \csc^{-1}(r)\right)}{\left(r^2-1\right)^{3/2}}\,,& \text{for $r>1\,.$}\end{cases}$$
Disclaimer: I haven't done careful validity checks on these results. The Mathematica functions for symbolic computation of the distributional Hankel transform became available only upon the recent release of MMA Version 11.1.1.
This integral does not converge.
The reason: The asymptotic expansion $J_0(k) \approx \sqrt{\tfrac{2}{\pi k}}\cos(k-\tfrac{\pi}{4})$
(see (http://www.nbi.dk/~polesen/borel/node15.html)) formula 153, gives asymptotically, up to a constant factor, an integrand of the form
$$\sqrt{k}cos(k)cos(k-\tfrac{\pi}{4})=\tfrac{\sqrt{k}}{2}\underbrace{(cos(2k-\tfrac{\pi}{4})+\cos(\tfrac{\pi}{4}))}_{f(k)}$$
$f$ is a periodic fonction with period $\pi$ with the following representative curve:
Let $a_m=(4m+2)\tfrac{\pi}{4}, b_m=(4m+3)\tfrac{\pi}{4}, c_m=(4m+4)\tfrac{\pi}{4}, a_m=(4m+5)\tfrac{\pi}{4}$. Then
$$I:=\int_0^{\infty}\sqrt{k}f(k)dk=\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left(\left(\underbrace{\int_{a_m}^{b_m}}_{I_m}+\underbrace{\int_{b_m}^{c_m}}_{J_m}+\underbrace{\int_{c_m}^{d_m}}_{K_m}+\underbrace{\int_{d_m}^{a_{m+1}}}_{L_m}\right)\sqrt{k}f(k)dk\right)$$
We admit here that it can be proven in a rigorous manner (taking into account the variable factor $\sqrt{k}$) that, for all $m$, $I_m+K_m>0$.
Thus $$I>\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left(\left(\underbrace{\int_{b_m}^{c_m}}_{J_m}+\underbrace{\int_{d_m}^{a_{m+1}}}_{L_m}\right)\sqrt{k}f(k)dk\right)$$
But the last sum contains an infinite number of times the same positive constant.
Thus this RHS is divergent, and therefore $I$ also.