Suppose that $P(n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_N)$ be a proposition function involving $N >1$ positive integral variables $n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_N$. Then how to generalise the familiar induction to prove this statement?
Can the following possibly be correct?
(1) Suppose that $P(1, 1, \ldots, 1)$ is true.
(2) Suppose the truth of $P(k_1, k_2, \ldots, k_N)$ implies the truth of $P(k_1+1, k_2+1, \ldots, K_N+1)$.
Then $P(n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_N)$ is true for all $(n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_N) \in \mathbb{N}^N$.
For example, can we generalise induction to prove the following statement?
Let $m$ and $n$ be natural numbers such that $m < n$, and let $x$ be a real number such that $0 < x \leq \frac 1 2$. Then $$n^x - m^x < (n-m)x.$$
While this can indeed be done, your described approach certainly isn't enough - here's a counterexample! Let $P(x_1, . . . , x_n)$ be the statement $$"x_1=x_2=...=x_n."$$ Then $P(1, . . . , 1)$ is true, and $P(x_1, . . . , x_n)$ implies $P(x_1+1, . . . , x_n+1)$, but clearly $P$ is not true in general.
What's going on is that this scheme fails to take into account the fact that we need to allow the variables to increment independently. Based on this, can you see what type of statement you'll need to prove in general?
If you get stuck, you might also google the phrase "double induction" and see if you can generalize that to $n$-many parameters. But I suggest trying to figure it out yourself, first.