For finding the area of a circle of radius $r$ using $x=r \cos(t)$ and $y=r \sin(t)$ with $t$ from $0$ to $2 \pi$, it seems that the formula usually given for parametric area, which is $\int_a^b y(t)x'(t)dt$, gives a negative result and all the examples I could find use the formula of $\int_a^b x(t)y'(t)dt$
From what I've read, for the area formula to work, you'd need a closed curve but the sign depends on the direction? From what I read on brilliant (the above paragraph, as well as the circle example), my negative sign is due to the using the first formula and not the second... however, if I use my formula with $\int_{2\pi}^{0} r \sin(x) \cdot -1 r \sin(x) \ dx$ then it works out well and I get $\pi r^2$ with the positive sign
Then reading this answer to a user with a similar issue, the suggestion is due to the sign of the product of the terms inside more than anything.
Which is the right formula to use, and is there a good way to predict which one would give the correct sign?
Both formulas are correct; care needs to taken though in determining the integration limits of the parametrized variable.
In the case of $\int y(t)x'(t)dt=\int y (x)dx$, the integration is over the range $x\in [-r,r]$, which corresponds to $ [\pi,0]$ under the parameterization $x=r\cos t$ (i.e. $-r= r\cos\pi$ and $r=r\cos 0$) and the area integral for the circle is given by
\begin{align} Area & =\int_{-r}^r [y-(-y)]\>dx = 2\int_{-r}^r y\>dx\\ &= 2 \int_\pi^0 y(t)x’(t) \>dt\\ &= 2 r^2 \int_\pi^0(-\sin^2t)\>dt\\ &= \pi r^2 \end{align}