I am trying to follow the answer to this question. Sorry to ask to read another post, but I don't understand why the integration of X is not just between the limits [0,1], where X has support. Instead there is a second integral between 0 and 1/y. This is confusing and the recommendation of drawing the integration area is not helping. I get it that 1/y is meant to find the inverse of U[0,1/x], but in this case, why integrate [0,1] separately?
2026-03-26 21:10:14.1774559414
How to get the marginal distribution by splitting the integral of one of two variables
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Plotting should help see why calculating the marginal from the bivariate needs to be broken down into two different intervals: