Let $$ f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{1}{x} & \dfrac{1}{n}\leq x \leq 2 \\[4pt] 0 & 0 < x < \dfrac{1}{n} \end{cases} $$
$f_{n}(x)$ converges point-wise to $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$, $x\in(0,2]$. How to test whether this convergence is uniform?
Let $$ f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{1}{x} & \dfrac{1}{n}\leq x \leq 2 \\[4pt] 0 & 0 < x < \dfrac{1}{n} \end{cases} $$
$f_{n}(x)$ converges point-wise to $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$, $x\in(0,2]$. How to test whether this convergence is uniform?
For uniform convergence, given $\epsilon > 0$, we need to find $N$ such that $|f(x)-f_n(x)|<\epsilon$ for all $x$ and $n\geq N$. Every $f_n(x)$ differs from $f(x)=1/x$ on the interval $(0,1/n)$ where $f_n(x)=0$ and so the difference is $1/x$. This difference is not bounded at all for any $n$ (becoming infinite as $x\to 0$), so it can't be bounded by some $\epsilon$.