I observed graphically that $$f(z)=\int_0^\infty \ln\left(1+\frac{z}{\cosh(x)}\right)dx=\frac{\pi^2}{8}+\frac{(\cosh^{-1}(z))^2}{2},z\ge1$$
Can anyone explain why this holds? I tried differentiating with respect to $z$ but I didn't really know how to continue further.
Also, if anyone knows how to obtain a closed form of $f(z)$ for $-1<z<1$ it would be greatly appreciated as I'm curious about specific values such as $f(-\frac{1}{2})=-\frac{7\pi^2}{72}$ and $f(\frac{1}{2})=\frac{5\pi^2}{72}.$
Substitute $z=\frac{1-w^2}{1+w^2}$, the original integral turns into $$I(w)=\int_0^\infty\ln\left(1+\frac{1-w^2}{1+w^2}\operatorname{sech} x\right)dx.$$ Use Feymann's trick, $$I'(w)=\int_0^\infty\frac{-4w}{1-w^4+(1+w^2)^2\cosh x}dx$$ Recall $\cosh x=\frac12(e^x+e^{-x})$, $$I'(w)=\int_0^\infty\frac{-4w}{1-w^4+(1+w^2)^2\frac12(e^x+e^{-x})}dx\\ =\int_0^\infty\frac{-4we^x}{(1-w^4)e^x+(1+w^2)^2\frac12(e^{2x}+1)}dx\\ =\int_0^\infty\frac{-4w}{(1-w^4)e^x+(1+w^2)^2\frac12(e^{2x}+1)}de^x\\ =-4\frac{\arctan w}{1+w^2}$$ $$I(w)=I(0)+\int_0^w -4\frac{\arctan l}{1+l^2}dl\\ =\int_0^\infty\ln(1+\operatorname{sech}(x))dx-2\arctan^2w\\ =\frac{\pi^2}8-2\arctan^2w$$ Now, solve $z=\frac{1-w^2}{1+w^2}$ w.r.t. $w$ and use $-2\arctan^2\sqrt{\frac{1-z}{1+z}}=\frac12\operatorname{arccosh}^2 z$, we get $$f(z)=\frac{\pi^2}{8}+\frac{(\cosh^{-1}(z))^2}{2},z>-1.$$ The formula is valid when $z\in[-1,1]$ if we consider $\cosh^{-1}$ as a complex-valued function. If you don't like this representation, just deduce $f(z)=\frac{\pi^2}{8}-\frac{(\arccos(z))^2}{2}$ using some algebra.