$$(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}) \cup (A \cap B) = (A \cup \overline{B}) \cap (\overline{A} \cup B)$$
Note that $\overline{B}$ denotes the complement of B.
One thing I notice is that $(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}) = \overline{A \cup B}$ using De Morgan's laws, so the equation becomes
$$\overline{A \cup B} \cup (A \cap B) = (A \cup \overline{B}) \cap (\overline{A} \cup B)$$
Visually in a Venn diagram, the left hand side is everything outside of A and B, as well as the shared overlap between A and B. The right hand side is harder to explain in words; it's the intersection of the following two regions: everything outside of B as well as the shared overlap between A and B, and everything outside of A as well as the shared overlap between A and B. When I draw a picture, the equality is clear.
Is there an elegant way to prove this equality? Anything other than showing that the left is a subset of the right and also that the right is a subset of the left?
EDIT: A truth table works well, since there are only 4 possibilities (neither, A, B, or both) to inspect. Are there alternatives?
DeMorgan is not a bad idea (always a good idea to know what tools you have at your disposal), but it's not really necessary here--distributivity for the win!
\begin{align} (A\cup\overline{B})\cap(\overline{A}\cup B) &=[(A\cup\overline{B})\cap\overline{A}]\cup[(A\cup\overline{B})\cap B]\\[0.5em] &=[(A\cap\overline{A})\cup(\overline{B}\cap\overline{A})]\cup[(A\cap B)\cup(\overline{B}\cap B)]\\[0.5em] &= (\overline{B}\cap\overline{A})\cup(A\cap B). \end{align}