I started the proof with this:
$$\sup(f(x)^2) = \sup(f(x)*f(x)) = \sup(f(x)) * \sup(f(x) = (\sup(f(x)))^2$$
But it doesn't feel right. Any ideas or comments?
I started the proof with this:
$$\sup(f(x)^2) = \sup(f(x)*f(x)) = \sup(f(x)) * \sup(f(x) = (\sup(f(x)))^2$$
But it doesn't feel right. Any ideas or comments?
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Let $f:[-10,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)=x$. Then $sup(f(x)^2)=100$ and $(sup(f(x)))^2=1$. They are not equal.