$$1+x-(1+x^{1+a})^{\frac1{1+a}}=1-\frac{x^{-a}}{1+a}+O(x^{-(1+2a)}),\quad x → +∞,\ a>0.$$
It was provided to me kindly by a contributor here - and is much better than the one I had arrived at empirically. But how do I go about proving it - a reference would be great, a simple explanation better!
Even for $x>5$ the approximation is really useful to me in the evaluation of probabilities based on the integral of the LHS, for which I could not find an easy to manage form for use in various integrals.
All being well, a hope to use the approximation in a published work, so I will reference any answer: guidance on referencing would also be useful!
Jamie
Using the approximation $(1+y)^{\alpha} = 1 +\alpha y + O(y^2)$ as $y\to 0$, $$ \begin{align*} (1+x^{1+a})^{\frac{1}{1+a}} &= x\left(1 + x^{-a-1}\right)^{\frac{1}{1+a}} \\ &=x\left(1 + \frac{x^{-1-a}}{1+a} + O\left(x^{-2-2a}\right)\right) \\ & = x + \frac{x^{-a}}{1+a}+ O\left(x^{-1-2a}\right) \end{align*} $$
Therefore,
$$ 1+x - (1+x^{1+a})^{\frac{1}{1+a}} = 1 - \frac{x^{-a}}{1+a}+ O\left(x^{-1-2a}\right) $$
as $x\rightarrow \infty$.