When I approached this problem I thought that it can be easily solved by applying induction. However something went completely wrong and I haven’t managed to prove it by induction.
Maybe there is some different way to approach this problem? Any kind of help will be much appreciated
This inequality just says that there more permutations than partitions of the set $[n]=\{1,\ldots,n\}.$
Every permutation of $[n]$ has cycles. Every cycle is a permutation of some subset of $[n].$ Those subsets are disjoint, so they form a partition of $[n].$ But this mapping from permutations to partitions is not one-to-one. For example: $$ \begin{array}{ccc} \text{permutation} & & \text{partition} \\[8pt] \hline \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & \to & 2 \\ \uparrow & \swarrow \\ 4 & & 3 \end{array} \right] & \mapsto & \Big\{ \{1,2,4,\},\,\,\, \{3\} \Big\} \\[12pt] \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & \leftarrow & 2 \\ \downarrow & \nearrow \\ 4 & & 3 \end{array} \right] & \mapsto & \Big\{ \{1,2,4\},\,\,\, \{3\}\Big\} \end{array} $$ Different permutations can be mapped to the same partition.
So there are more permutations than partitions.