Intuitively, it's obvious. For instance, a unary URM-comuptable function $f$ has an index $a$, where $a=\gamma(P)$. $P$ is the program computing $f$. Informally, I could put some instruction after the final configuration. If the final configuration is that $1$ is in $R_1$, then add $T(1,2)$ and $T(2,1)$. So the final configuration is that $1$ is sitll in $R_1$. There is infinitely many programs like above. Hence, infinitely many indices.
But how to prove formally?
If you have proved Rice's theorem, then it provides a slick nonconstructive shortcut:
Assume, to the contrary, that there are only finitely many programs that compute $f$. Then we can decide the property "this Turing machine computes $f$" simply by constructing an URM program that simulates the input machine (which is well known to be a computable task) and comparing it to each of those finitely many possibilities in turn. But Rice tells us that this is not possible to decide that property.