In this article of IIME Journal, at page 16, it is claimed that
for $0 < a \leq 1$ and $a \not = 1/n$ for any integer $n$, there exists an integer $k$ such that $k\cdot a < 1$ and $k$ is the greatest integer satisfying this condition.
However, how can we show the existence of such a $k\in \mathbb{Z}$ ?
Since $a>0$, there is some positive integer $N$ such that $a>1/N$. Then for any $m\geq N$, $ma>1$. So, there are only finitely many positive integers $k$ such that $ka\leq 1$ (and there exists at least one such $k$, namely $k=1$). Any finite nonempty subset of a totally ordered set has a greatest element, so there is a greatest positive integer $k$ such that $ka\leq 1$. Finally, we cannot have $ka=1$ for this $k$ since then $a$ would be equal to $1/k$.