How to prove that Riemann zeta function is zero for negative even numbers?

1.4k Views Asked by At

Can anyone please explain to me how to prove that Riemann zeta function is 0 for all negative even numbers. In many references , they have just given the statement without any proof. Any explanation or hint will be a great help. Thanks in advance.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On

This follows from the functional equation:

$$\zeta(-2n) = 2^{-2n}\pi^{-2n-1}\sin\left(\frac{-2n\pi}{2}\right) \Gamma(1+2n)\zeta(1+2n).$$

Because $\sin(n\pi) = 0$ for integers $n$, the RHS is equal to zero.

Note that this does not work to show that $\zeta(2n) = 0$ for positive $n$, as $-k$ is a pole of $\Gamma$ (so the RHS becomes '$0 \cdot \infty$'). It was essential above that $1+2n$ was not a pole of either $\Gamma$ or $\zeta$.

(That's good, because $\zeta(2n)$ is decidedly not zero for positive $n$.)