Can anyone please explain to me how to prove that Riemann zeta function is 0 for all negative even numbers. In many references , they have just given the statement without any proof. Any explanation or hint will be a great help. Thanks in advance.
2026-03-25 16:01:32.1774454492
How to prove that Riemann zeta function is zero for negative even numbers?
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This follows from the functional equation:
$$\zeta(-2n) = 2^{-2n}\pi^{-2n-1}\sin\left(\frac{-2n\pi}{2}\right) \Gamma(1+2n)\zeta(1+2n).$$
Because $\sin(n\pi) = 0$ for integers $n$, the RHS is equal to zero.
Note that this does not work to show that $\zeta(2n) = 0$ for positive $n$, as $-k$ is a pole of $\Gamma$ (so the RHS becomes '$0 \cdot \infty$'). It was essential above that $1+2n$ was not a pole of either $\Gamma$ or $\zeta$.
(That's good, because $\zeta(2n)$ is decidedly not zero for positive $n$.)