Prove that $\text{Ker}(A)=\text{Ker}(A^2)$ if $A$ is a normal operator.
I know that that $\text{Ker}(A)\subseteq \text{Ker}(A^2)$, which I proved as follows: $x\in \text{Ker}(A) \implies Ax=0\implies(AA)x=A(Ax)=0\implies x\in \text{Ker}(A^2)$
Prove that $\text{Ker}(A)=\text{Ker}(A^2)$ if $A$ is a normal operator.
I know that that $\text{Ker}(A)\subseteq \text{Ker}(A^2)$, which I proved as follows: $x\in \text{Ker}(A) \implies Ax=0\implies(AA)x=A(Ax)=0\implies x\in \text{Ker}(A^2)$
While this should be clear from the spectrum theorem, it can be established directly.
If $A^2x=0$, then $$0=(A^2x, A^2x)=(Ax, A^*A^2x)=(Ax, AA^*Ax)=(A^*Ax, A^*Ax)$$
Thus $A^*Ax=0$, hence $$0=(A^*Ax, x)=(Ax, Ax)$$
So $Ax=0$.