I've stumbled upon this lemma a few times in my textbook: $$\sum_{k=0}^{n}\begin{pmatrix}n\\k\end{pmatrix}^2=\begin{pmatrix}2n\\n\end{pmatrix}$$ I've been trying to prove it, but I simply can't seem to see a connection. I've been trying to use proof by induction, but I can't express the statement for $n+1$ via the statement for $n$.
How do I prove it?
$$ {n \choose k} = {n \choose n-k} $$ Then we can divide $2n$ objects into two groups. Form one group we choose $k$ from the other $n-k$ and we assuming all possibilities for $k$. Hence we get: $$ {2n \choose n}=\sum_{k=0}^n{n \choose k} {n \choose n-k} = \sum_{k=0}^n{n \choose k}^2 $$