I'm trying to prove or disprove that if $\vec n(x,y,z)$ is a unit vector, then $(\vec n\cdot\nabla)\vec n$ is orthogonal to $\vec n$. For this I first tried to compute $\vec n\cdot((\vec n\cdot\nabla)\vec n)$ and show that it's zero. I wrote it out in components, but the resulting expression contained only additions, no subtractions at all, so I couldn't simply cancel out something.
Then I wrote $\vec n$ as
$$\vec n=\vec n_0/|\vec n_0|$$
and tried to do the same with its components. But the expression appeared too large to handle manually. I then used Wolfram Mathematica to check that $\vec n\cdot((\vec n\cdot\nabla)\vec n)=0$ symbolically, and it confirmed it.
But I still wonder, are there any ways of proving this without needing to handle large intermediate expressions?
A demonstration sans coordinates:
We have
$\langle \vec n, \vec n \rangle = 1; \tag{1}$
thus, for any vector field $\vec v$,
$(\vec v \cdot \nabla) \langle \vec n, \vec n\ \rangle = 0; \tag{2}$
but
$(\vec v \cdot \nabla) \langle \vec n, \vec n \rangle = \langle (\vec v \cdot \nabla) \vec n, \vec n\ \rangle + \langle \vec n,(\vec v \cdot \nabla)\vec n \rangle$ $= 2\langle \vec n,(\vec v \cdot \nabla) \vec n \rangle; \tag{3}$
combining (2) with (3) yields
$\langle \vec n,(\vec v \cdot \nabla)\vec n \rangle = 0; \tag{4}$
we now take $\vec v = \vec n$, whence
$\langle \vec n,(\vec n \cdot \nabla)\vec n \rangle = 0, \tag{5}$
showing, as required, that $\vec n$ is orthogonal to $(\vec n \cdot \nabla) \vec n$.
Note we have in fact established the much more general (4); that is, $\vec n$ is orthogonal to $(\vec v \cdot \nabla)\vec n$ for any $\vec v$.