$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{x^2}{x^2-y}$
I set $x = r\cos\theta$, $y=r\sin\theta$, when $(x,y) \to (0,0)$, $r\to0$ and I got $\lim_{r \to 0} \frac{\cos^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta-\sin\theta/r}$ which is undefined.
Is it enough to prove this ?
$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{x^2}{x^2-y}$
I set $x = r\cos\theta$, $y=r\sin\theta$, when $(x,y) \to (0,0)$, $r\to0$ and I got $\lim_{r \to 0} \frac{\cos^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta-\sin\theta/r}$ which is undefined.
Is it enough to prove this ?
Yes, your approach is enough. Perhaps that it would be better to add that $\theta\notin\pi\mathbb Z$; otherwise, the limit exists.