We know that p, q - odd primes such that $$(q - 1) | (p - 1)$$ and a is an integer such that $$ (a, pq) = 1 $$ How do we prove that $$ a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod pq $$
2026-03-27 21:43:27.1774647807
How to prove this using modular arithmetics?
49 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in PRIME-NUMBERS
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