Let $E$ be a real Banach space and let $K$ be a subset of $E$. Suppose for each $f\in E^{*}$, the set $$f(K)=\bigcup_{k\in K}\langle f,k\rangle$$ is bounded in $\Bbb{R}$. Then, $K$ is a bounded subset of $E.$
Question:
How to read $f(K)=\bigcup_{k\in K}\langle f,k\rangle$ and what does it mean, mathematically?
I can tell you what it means mathematically, but I prefer to leave your question about how you should read the symbols out loud to a native English speaker.
A functional $f$ is a function $f: E \to \mathbb{R}$ (sometimes $\mathbb{C})$ that takes a vector in $E$ and outputs a real(complex) number. When you have a Hilbert space, every functional arises as $\varphi: E \to \mathbb{R}$ where $\varphi(\cdot)=\langle v,\cdot\rangle$ for some $v \in E$. This follows from the Riesz representation theorem for Hilbert spaces.
Because of this, you can denote a functional $f$ using the bra-ket notation which is popular in physics and real analysis. Note that a Banach space does not necessarily have to be an inner product space. So, when we're dealing with a Banach space, $\langle f, k \rangle$ is just a notation that means the evaluation of $f$ at $k$. Your equality is now this:
$$f(K) = \bigcup_{k\in K} \{f(k)\} =\bigcup_{k \in K} \{\langle f,k\rangle\}$$