$\newcommand{\Cond}{\operatorname{Cond}}$There will be a huge cancellation error computing $\ln(x)-\ln(y)$ for $x \approx y$.
One method for solving this issue is rewriting $\ln(x)-\ln(y)$ as $\log(\frac{x}{y})$ but the condition number for $f(u) = \ln(u)$ is infinte for $u = 1$ so it is not a well conditioned method.
$$\Delta x = h$$ $$\Cond(f,x) = \frac{\frac{\Delta f}{f}}{\frac{\Delta x}{x}} = \frac{\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} \times \frac{h}{f(x)}}{\frac{h}{x}} = \frac{x f'(x)}{f(x)}$$ $$ \Cond(\ln(x), x) = \frac{1}{\ln(x)}$$ $$\Cond(\ln(x), 1) = \infty$$
How can we reduce the error of computing $\ln(x) - \ln(y)$? Does rewriting it as $\ln(1+\frac{x-y}{y})$ help?
Suppose, that $x$, $y$ are exact, and $x\approx y$. Let $z$ denote $(x-y)/y$ and let $z^{*} = \text{fl}((x-y)/y)$ be the computed value of $z$. Since $x-y$ can be computed without any error (by the Sterbenz lemma as noted in a comment), $z^{*} = z\times(1+\alpha_1\delta_1)$, where $|\delta_1|\leq \varepsilon$, $\varepsilon$ is the machine precision, and $\alpha_1$ is the accuracy of floating point division, usually $\alpha_1 = 1/2$.
Let $\text{log1p}(x) = \text{ln}(1+x)$ and let $\overset{\sim}{\text{log1p}}(x)$ be the computed value of $\text{log1p}(x)$.
We have $\overset{\sim}{\text{log1p}}(z^{*}) = \text{log1p}(z^*)\times(1+\alpha_2\delta_2)$, where $|\delta_2|\leq \varepsilon$, and $\alpha_2$ is the accuracy of $\text{log1p}$ function.
Thus: $$\overset{\sim}{\text{log1p}}(z^{*}) = \text{log1p}((1+\alpha_1\delta_1)z)\times(1+\alpha_2\delta_2) = \text{log1p}(z)\times(1+\text{cond}(\text{log1p}, z)\alpha_1\delta_1)\times(1+\alpha_2\delta_2) + O(\varepsilon^2) = \text{log1p}(z)\times(1+\text{cond}(\text{log1p}, z)\alpha_1\delta_1+\alpha_2\delta_2) + O(\varepsilon^2)$$ where the condition number of the $\text{log1p}$ function is $$\text{cond}(\text{log1p}, z) = \frac{z}{\text{ln}(z + 1)\times(z + 1)}$$ and for $z\approx 0$, $\text{cond}(\text{log1p}, z)= 1 - \frac{1}{2}z + O(z^2) \approx 1$. This shows, that the relative forward error for $x\approx y$: $$\left|\frac{\overset{\sim}{\text{log1p}}(z^{*}) - \text{log1p}(z)}{\text{log1p}(z)}\right| \lesssim (\alpha_1 + \alpha_2)\varepsilon$$ is small and very close to the accuracy of $\text{log1p}$ function.
Notice, that you cannot use $\text{ln}(1+z)$ instead of $\text{log1p}(z)$, due to a huge condition number of $\text{ln}(1+z)$ for $z\approx 0$.
If $x$ or $y$ is not exact, then we must also take into account the condition number of $\text{ln}(x)- \text{ln}(y)$ function. As you observed, this condition number is very high for $x\approx y$. In this case it is impossible to obtain an accurate algorithm of computing this function, and the only solution is to use high precision arithmetics.