I'm trying to understand why $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(a-b,b)$. What is clear to me is that the $\text{gcd}$ divides $a,b$ and also $a-b$ (let's assume $a\ge b$).
But then it seems to me we should also have $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(a-b,a)$. But that's not mentioned on Wikipedia so it might not true.
Trying some examples (look at for example $a=7$ and $b=2$) I can't find an example for which $\text{gcd}(a,b) \neq \text{gcd}(a-b,a)$.
If I understood why $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(a-b,b)$ then I could figure out whether $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(a-b,a)$ or not.
So my question is:
Please could someone explain to me why $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(a-b,b)$?
$\rightarrow:$ Suppose $x|a, x|b$ then $x| a-b$
$\leftarrow:$ Suppose $x|b, x|a-b$ then $x|b+(a-b)=a$
Hence the pair $(a,b)$ and $(a-b,b)$ share the same set of common divisors.