$1.)\space\space (A\space \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$
$2.)\space\space (A \cup B)' = A' \cap B'$
How can I show that $1 \rightarrow 2$? I understand how to get from the left side of each law to the right side, but not how to show that the first implies the second.
Applying $1$ to $A'$ and $B',$ $$(A'\cap B')'=A''\cup B''=A\cup B$$ Thus we have, $$(A'\cap B')'=A\cup B.$$
Using the fact that two sets are equal if and only if their complements are equal we get,
$$(A'\cap B')''=(A\cup B)'.$$
Now, for all sets $P,$ we have $P''=P.$ Therefore,
$$A'\cap B'=(A\cup B)'$$