In Representation Theory of Finite Groups: An Introductory Approach by Benjamin Steinberg, there is a corollary in which I feel confused.
Corollary 6.2.6. Let p be a prime and let $G$ be a group of order $p^2$. Then $G$ is abelian.
Proof. Let $d_1, \cdots,d_s$ be the degrees of the irreducible representations of $G$. Then $d_i$ can be $1$, $p$ or $p^2$. Since the trivial representation has degree $1$ and $$p^2=|G|=d_1^2+\cdots+d_s^2$$ it follows that all $d_i=1$ and hence $G$ is abelian.
I have two questions:
- Why does the equation $p^2=|G|=d_1^2+\cdots+d_s^2$ hold?
- Why is $G$ abelian if each of its irreducible representations has the degree $d_i=1$?
I have not yet found any theory before Corollary 6.2.6 in this book to illustrate these questions. Could you please give me some hints to show them?
For any finite group, the sum of the squares of the dimensions of its irreducible representations is the order of the group - i.e. the equation $$\vert G\vert = d_1^2 + \ldots + d_s^2$$ is true for any finite group, and since $\vert G\vert = p^2$ we get the full equation. This follows from character theory and the orthogonality relations.
For your second question, I'd have a think about the conjugacy classes, and how the number of conjugacy classes of a group is related to the number of irreducible representations - how many irreducible representations does $G$ have if each $d_i=1$?
Let me know if you want any more hints or explanations :)