Let $\sim$ be an equivalence relation on a topological space $X$, and let $Y = X/\sim$ be equipped with the quotient topology. How to show that if $X$ is Hausdorff and the set $\big\{ (x, y) : x \sim y \big\} \subseteq X \times X$ is closed, then $Y$ is Hausdorff.
My main question would be that is this true without the assumption that the quotient map is open.
The result isn’t true in general.
Let $X$ be any Hausdorff space that it not normal, and let $H$ and $K$ be disjoint closed subsets of $X$ that cannot be separated by disjoint open sets. For $x,y\in X$ let $x\sim y$ if and only if $x=y$, or $x,y\in H$, or $x,y\in K$. Then
$$\{\langle x,y\rangle\in X\times X:x\sim y\}=\Delta_X\cup(H\times H)\cup(K\times K)\;,$$
which is closed in $X\times X$.
Let $p_H$ and $p_K$ be the points of $Y=X/{\sim}$ corresponding to the sets $H$ and $K$, respectively, and let $q:X\to Y$ be the quotient map. Suppose that $U$ and $V$ are open nbhds of $p_H$ and $p_K$, respectively. Then $q^{-1}[U]$ and $q^{-1}[V]$ are open nbhds of $H$ and $K$, respectively, so $q^{-1}[U]\cap q^{-1}[K]\ne\varnothing$, and therefore $U\cap V\ne\varnothing$. Thus, $Y$ is not Hausdorff.