I am reading the lecture notes. On page 34, line 13, it is said that $\int_G f(t) dt = \int_G f(t^{-1}) dt$. How to prove this identity? I think that if we let $s=t^{-1}$, then $\int_Gf(t^{-1})dt=\int_{G^{-1}}f(s)d(s^{-1}) = \int_G f(s)\frac{-1}{s^2}ds$. But I didn't get $\int_G f(t) dt = \int_G f(t^{-1}) dt$. Thank you very much.
2026-04-06 00:20:20.1775434820
How to show that $\int_G f(t) dt = \int_G f(t^{-1}) dt$?
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As mentioned in the comments of the main thread and FelxCQ's answer, the lecture notes state that $t$ is a right invariant Haar measure on a compact Lie group $G$. It is demonstrated in Haar measure on a compact group that for any subset $A$ of $G$: $$t(A) = t(A^{-1})$$
(Note that your the notes also specify that $t$ has been normalized, i.e. $\int_G dt = 1$)
where $A$ is the set of inverses of group elements. i.e. $t$ is invariant under the inverse operation.
Now $$\int_G f(t^{-1}) dt = \int_{G^{-1}} f(t) dt^{-1} = \int_G f(t) dt$$