How to show that
$$\left| \frac{-x^2y-y^3+y}{x^2+y^2} \right| < \pi$$
if $1<\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}<4$?
I think of multiplying $-x^2y-y^3+y$ to the given condition, but it could further complicate things. Is there another way to have a more simplified inequality?
First look at the numerator-$$-x^2y-y^3+y=-(x^2+y^2)y+y=[-(x^2+y^2)+1]y.$$ Now, bring the condition to that form:
$1<\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}<4\quad\quad\quad\dots(0)$
$\Rightarrow1>x^2+y^2>\frac{1}{4}\quad\quad\quad\dots(1)$
$\Rightarrow-1<-(x^2+y^2)<-\frac{1}{4}$
$\Rightarrow0<-(x^2+y^2)+1<\frac{3}{4}$
$\Rightarrow\left|-(x^2+y^2)+1\right|<\frac{3}{4}\quad\quad\quad\dots(2)$
Also, since $x^2\ge0$ (since square of a real number) and $x^2+y^2<1$ from (1), we get $$0<y^2<1\Rightarrow0<|y|<1\quad\quad\quad\dots(3)$$ Multiplying (2) by (3), $$\left|-(x^2+y^2)+1\right|\cdot|y|<\frac{3}{4}\cdot1\Rightarrow\left|\left[-(x^2+y^2)+1\right]y\right|=\left|-x^2y-y^3+y\right|<\frac{3}{4}~\dots(4)$$ Multiplying $(0)$ with (4) (since, $1/(x^2+y^2)$ is a positive quantity, it is equal to $|1/(x^2+y^2)|$), we get $$\left|-x^2y-y^3+y\right|\cdot\left|\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}\right|<\frac{3}{4}\cdot4\Rightarrow\left|\frac{-x^2y-y^3+y}{x^2+y^2}\right|<3<\pi$$