How can one show that asymptotically
$$\sum_{x=1}^\infty \prod_{i=1}^{x-1} \left(1-\frac{i}{n}\right) \sim \sqrt{\frac{\pi n}{2}} \; ?$$
A non rigorous argument is to say that for large $n$, $(1-i/n) \approx e^{-n}$ and then make the approximation $\prod_{i=1}^{x-1} (1-i/n) \approx e^{-x^2/2n}$. Finally we approximate the sum by an integral and use the fact that
$$\int_{x=0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2/2n} = \sqrt{\frac{\pi n}{2}}.$$
The inner product is $\dfrac{(n-1)!}{n^{x-1}(n-x)!}$. The terms beyond $x=n+1$ in the summation are zero. Hence, the summation is $$\sum_{x=1}^n \dfrac{(n-1)!}{n^{x-1}(n-x)!} = \underbrace{\dfrac{(n-1)!}{n^{n-1}} \sum_{t=0}^{n-1} \dfrac{n^t}{t!} \sim \dfrac1{n^{n-1}} \sqrt{2\pi (n-1)} \left(\dfrac{n-1}{e}\right)^{n-1} \dfrac{e^n}{2}}_{\text{Stirling and the fact that $e^x$ has equal mass on either side of $x^x$ in its Taylor series }} \sim \sqrt{\dfrac{\pi n}2}$$