To be specific, I am wondering how to take the limit of the following expression: \begin{align} L=\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2x} \int_{-x}^x dh \int_{-x}^x dg \ f(g-h), \end{align} where $f(g-h)$ is a well behaved function.
I can change coordinates to $u=g-h$ and $v=h$; the Jacobian of this transformation is J=1, so the limit becomes \begin{align} L=\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2x} \int_{-x}^x dv \int_{-x-v}^{x-v} du \ f(u). \end{align}
At this point I'm stuck. I believe, by looking at it, the limit is \begin{align} L = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} du \ f(u), \end{align} but I would really like a way to see this formally. It would be nice to know of general methods to solve the above limit as well.
We can stick to simple one variable changes of variable. Let $F$ be an antiderivative for $f.$ Then
$$\int_{-x}^x\int_{-x}^x f(s-t)\,ds\,dt = \int_{-x}^x\int_{-x-t}^{x-t} f(s)\,ds\,dt$$ $$ = \int_{-x}^x (F(x-t)-F(-x-t)) \,dt = \int_0^{2x}(F(t)-F(-t))\, dt.$$
Thus the expression we're interested in is
$$\frac{\int_0^{2x}(F(t)-F(-t))\, dt}{2x}.$$
By L'Hopital, the limit of this equals the limit of $F(2x)-F(-2x) \to \int_{-\infty}^\infty f.$