Hello I have just began to learn about vector calculus.
I am confused on what is going on in my notes and I am wondering if someone can help walk through what is going on and how to think about it.
In my notes I have:
Consider a point mass M at the origin. A point $P$, $\rho$ away-
Then $$F=\frac{-GM}{\rho^2}u_{\rho}$$
$$F=\nabla \psi= \frac{\partial \psi}{ \partial \rho} u_{\rho}+\frac{1}{\rho^2 sin\phi}\frac{\partial \psi}{ \partial \theta} u_{\theta}+\frac{1}{\rho}\frac{\partial \psi}{ \partial \phi} u_{\phi}$$
$\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \rho}=\frac{-GM}{\rho^2} \to \psi=\frac{GM}{\rho}+f(\phi,\theta)$ , the other partials are zero, and so $f(\phi,\theta)=$ a constant
So $\psi=\frac{GM}{\rho}+C$
In conclusion $F=\frac{-GM}{\rho^2}u_{\rho}$ is a conservative vector field with $\psi=\frac{GM}{\rho}$
What I dont get:
Well I just don't understand how it was derived. I understand the first part as gravity is inversely proportional to the distance squared. So, then did we just take the partial derivatives to see what the gradient of the force was? Why did the other two partial derivatives just become zero?
Thank you all.
The gradient operator in spherical coordinates $(r,\theta,\phi)$ with unit vectors $(\hat r ,\hat \theta,\hat \phi)$ is given by
$$\nabla = \hat r\frac{\partial }{ \partial r} +\hat \theta \frac{1}{r }\frac{\partial }{ \partial \theta} +\hat \phi \frac{1}{r \sin\theta}\frac{\partial }{ \partial r} \tag 1$$
Now, suppose that $\nabla \psi = \hat r f(r)$ where $f$ is independent on $\theta$ and $\phi$. Then, we have from $(1)$
$$\begin{align} \frac{\partial \psi }{ \partial r}&=f(r)\tag 2\\\\ \frac{1}{r }\frac{\partial \psi}{ \partial \theta}&=0 \tag 3\\\\ \frac{1}{r \sin\theta}\frac{\partial \psi}{ \partial r}&=0 \tag 4 \end{align}$$
The general solution to $(2)$ is given by
$$\psi =\int f(r)\,dr+g(\theta,\phi) \tag 5$$
where $g(\theta,\phi)$ is an integration constant. Using $(5)$ in $(3)$ we find that
$$\frac{\partial g(\theta,\phi)}{ \partial \theta}=0\implies g(\theta,\phi)=h(\phi) \tag 6$$
where $h(\phi)$ is an integration constant.
Finally, using $(6)$ in $(4)$ reveals
$$\frac{\partial h(\phi)}{ \partial \phi}=0\implies h=C \tag 7$$
where $C$ is an integration constant.
Putting it all together yields
$$\psi=\int f(r)\,dr+C$$
For $f(r)=-\frac{GM}{r^2}$, we have
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\psi=\frac{GM}{r}+C}$$
as was to be shown! If we require $\lim_{r\to \infty}\psi=0$, then $C=0$.