This is in $F_2$. This might sound silly but I know that the inverse of $(x^3+x)$ in mod $(x^4+x+1)$ is $(x^3 + x^2)$ but I am not sure how to verify that. It should be that when I multiply $(x^3+x)$ by its inverse then I should get $1$. However,
$$(x^3+x)(x^3 + x^2) = x^6 + x^5 + x^4 + x^3$$
Now I don't know how that equals $1$ mod $(x^4+x+1)$.
Since $(x^4+x+1) = 0$, I can get that $x^4 = -1-x$ but what use is that :/
$x^6 + x^5 + x^4 + x^3 = x^2(x^4) + x(x^4) + x^4 + x^3 = x^2(x + 1) + x(x + 1) + (x + 1) + x^3$, using the $x^4 \equiv -1 -x \equiv 1 + x$ fact. (as we are in $F_2$, $-1 = 1$, etc.)
Now multiply out: $x^3 + x^2 + x^2 + x + x + 1 + x^3 = 1$, as all equals terms cancel ($a + a = 2a = 0a = 0$ as $2 \equiv 0$ in $F_2$).