I want to define (defining it as set) that $F$ is an arbitrary function from $X$ to $Y$ so I could use expressions like $(x,y)\in F$.
This is what I have managed to write:
$$F = \left\{ (x,y) \mid x\in X, y\in Y \right\}$$
What I struggle is to write single-valueness - the fact that any $x$ appears in at most one pair.
Edit
I am looking exactly for a way to write in the way that would read (in order) something like this: "$F$ is a set consisting of ordered pairs where the first element belongs to $X$, the second belongs to $Y$ and the first element must be different in each pair."
My current idea is to do this: $$F = \left\{ (x,y) \mid x\in X \land y\in Y \land \forall (x, y')\in F\Rightarrow y'=y) \right\}$$
I am just not that sure that this is easily readablle and correct to impose restriction using self-reference.
You can think of a function from $X$ to $Y$ as a subset $F\subset X\times Y$ which satisfies $$\forall x\forall y\forall z\Big(((x,y)\in F\wedge (x,z)\in F)\Rightarrow y=z\Big)$$