I feel very strange asking this but here is a problem I have from a textbook of mine. Simply put, I do not understand how (a_(t-1)*a_(t-2)…a_1) became the pi-product of a_i/a_o.
As a result, I dont understand how he got to this definition for a difference equation
It is wrong: $$\prod_{i=0}^{t-1} \frac{a_i}{a_0} \not= \frac{1}{a_0} \prod_{i=0}^{t-1} a_i = \frac{1}{a_0} a_0 \cdots a_{t-1} = a_1 \cdots a_{t-1}$$ Correct notation is: $$\frac{\prod_{i=0}^{t-1} a_i}{a_0} = a_1 \cdots a_{t-1}$$
Note that it is corrected in the fourth edition of the book.
More generally: $$\prod_{i=0}^{t-1} k\cdot a_i = k^t \prod_{i=0}^{t-1} a_i$$ Contrast with sums: $$\sum_{i=0}^{t-1} k\cdot a_i = k \sum_{i=0}^{t-1} a_i$$