How was this integral solved ?
$$\displaystyle \frac d{dy}\int_{g(y)}^{h(y)}f(x,y)dx$$ $$=\int_{g(y)}^{h(y)}\frac \partial{\partial y} f(x,y)dx+f(h(y),y)\frac{dh(y)}{dy}-f(g(y),y)\frac{dg(y)}{dy}$$
I can see intiutively where $+f(h(y),y)\frac{dh(y)}{dy}-f(g(y),y)\frac{dg(y)}{dy}$ come from but not the other term $\int_{g(y)}^{h(y)}\frac \partial{\partial y} f(x,y)dx$.
I do not see which was first calculated, the integral and the the derivative or was first the derivative and then the integral?
$\displaystyle \frac d{dy}\int_{g(y)}^{h(y)}f(x,y)dx==\int_{g(y)}^{h(y)}\frac \partial{\partial y} f(x,y)dx+f(h(y),y)\frac{dh(y)}{dy}-f(g(y),y)\frac{dg(y)}{dy}$
The above expression is nothing but "Leibniz Integral Rule (Differentiation under the integral sign)".
You can find the proof from the following links:
$1.$ http://sgpwe.izt.uam.mx/files/users/uami/jdf/proyectos/Derivar_inetegral.pdf
$2.$ Leibniz rule derivation
$3.$ http://www.econ.yale.edu/~pah29/409web/leibniz.pdf