The weak form being the form equivalent to the axiom of dependent choice. So what I mean is: is it insufficient for the development of functional analysis and everything else Zorn's lemma implies? Or is it simply the reason we can't prove that not every set is measurable, has the property of Baire, and the perfect set property with just DC?
2026-03-28 06:40:40.1774680040
How weak is the weak form of Zorn's lemma?
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