Let $x_1,...,x_n$ be $n$ distinct real numbers.
I'd like to prove that $$\sum_{j=1}^{n} { \frac {1} {\prod_{i=1 \land i \neq j}^{n}{(x_j-x_i)}} } = 0.$$
This makes me think of Cauchy determinants but I don't see any direct link. I tried to reduce to the same denominator but it led to nothing good. Any suggestion?
NB : Note that this sum equals $\sum_{k=1}^{n}{\frac{1}{Q'(x_k)}}$ where $Q = \prod_{k=1}^{n}{(X-x_k)}$.
Thank you!
More generally, the identity holds also when $x_1,...,x_n$ are $n$ distinct complex numbers.
Consider the polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, given by $$P(z):=\sum_{j=1}^{n} { \frac {{\prod_{i=1 \land i \neq j}^{n}{(z-x_i)}}} {\prod_{i=1 \land i \neq j}^{n}{(x_j-x_i)}} }-1.$$ It is easy to verify that $P(x_i)=0$ for $i=1,\dots,n$. Therefore, since $x_1,...,x_n$ are $n$ distinct numbers, the polynomial $P$ is identically zero. It follows that the coefficient of $z^{n-1}$ of $P$, which is just $$\sum_{j=1}^{n}\frac {1} {\prod_{i=1 \land i \neq j}^{n}{(x_j-x_i)}}, $$ has to be zero.