I'm reading a book, the book is aimed at high schoolers so it is perhaps not the most rigorous book. The intended solutions the book provides for the problem are the following:
First assume the expression has a value and call it $x$, so $x = \sqrt{a\sqrt{a\sqrt{a...}}}$ Then notice that $x = \sqrt{ax}$, then $x^2 = ax$, then $x(x-a) = 0$, then since $a$ is positive the solution is $x = a$ and that's the value of the whole expression.
They also offer a second solution that goes like this: If $x = \sqrt{a\sqrt{a\sqrt{a...}}}$ then we can also express it as: $x = a^{\frac{1}{2}}a^{\frac{1}{4}}a^{\frac{1}{8}}...$, then $x = a^{\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+...}$, and since $\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+... = 1$, then $x = a$ once again.
My first question is, how valid are any of these solutions at the university level? Say if this was a real analysis class, would any of those two answers be considered valid?
Also, although I haven't taken a real analysis class yet, I have heard of the $\epsilon-N$ for sequences and series, I assume if we want to do the same for this particular problem we would have to look at the sequence $\sqrt{a}, \sqrt{a\sqrt{a}}, \sqrt{a\sqrt{a\sqrt{a}}}, ...$, then check if it converges using $\epsilon-N$ and if it does then that's the value of he expression $\sqrt{a\sqrt{a\sqrt{a...}}}$ Second question is, is my speculation correct? Would this way of doing it with $\epsilon-N$ constitute a valid way of solving the problem if this was a real analysis class?
Lastly, my last question is, how would you solve the problem in a way that is valid for a real analysis class? Either using $\epsilon-N$ or whatever else, please show me in a way someone who hasn't taken a real analysis class before can understand.
To answer your question on how to prove it more rigourously this is how I will prove it.
Just take into account that I am just a student so beware with my solution.
I/Prove that if: $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = a$ and that $\lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = b$, then $\lim_{n \to \infty} (a_n) ^{b_n}= a^b$
1- We rewrite $(a_n) ^{b_n} = e^{log((a_n) ^{b_n})} = e^{b_nlog(a_n)}$.
2- More over we know that the function $e^x$ is continuous everywhere and that $log(x)$ is continuous on $x>0$.
Hence according to Heine theorem if $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = a \Rightarrow \lim_{n \to \infty} log(a_n) = log(a)$
3- Now according to direct application of limit arithmetic we have that $\lim_{n \to \infty} b_nlog(a_n) = b log(a)$
4- We continue and we use again the Heine theorem for the sequence of points $x_n = b_nlog(a_n)$. Because $e^x$ is continuous you have that if $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n =x \Rightarrow \lim_{n \to \infty} e^{x_n} = e^x$ and so here $\lim_{n \to \infty} (a_n)^{b_n} = e^{b_nlog(a_n)} = e^{blog(a)} = a^b$
II/ Applying this theorem to your specific question.
Just write here $b_n = \sum_{1 \leq k \leq n} \frac{1}{2^k} \underset{n \to \infty}{\rightarrow} 1$ and $a_n = a $ after it is simply a direct application of the theorem we writte in "I/"
Q.E.D.
I hope this helped you.
Rem: $a,b$ here are consiedered to be finite real numbers