I wanna know counter example of this infinite sequence statement

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if ${a_{kn}}$ coverges for all integer $2\leq k$, then sequence $a_{n}$ converges.($n=1,2,3...$)

This infinite sequence statement is maybe False. I'm trying to find counter example of this. Is there counter example of this statement?

(This is from Stewart's Calculus: Early Transcendentals)

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One counterexample (due to Euclid...!) is $\displaystyle a_n = \begin{cases} 1, &\text{if $n$ is prime}, \\ 0, &\text{if $n$ is not prime}. \end{cases} $