$$ A=\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & 2 \\ \end{pmatrix} $$
$A$ has eigenvalue $ \lambda $ of multiplicative 2 and eigenvalue $ \mu $ of multiplicative $1$.
Let scalar product on $\Bbb {R}^3 $ be defined by $(x,y)=x^{t}y$. Let $w$ be the eigenvector of length $1$ for the eigenvalue $ \mu $ , and define a linear map $f : \Bbb {R}^3 \to \Bbb {R}^3 $ by
$$f(x)=x-(x, w)w $$
Then, how can we find the square matrix $B$ of size $3$ s.t. $f(x)=Bx $.
And also how to show that the image of $f$ coincides with the eigenspace of eigenvalue $ \lambda $?
Answer:
I got $ \lambda =1$ and $ \mu = 4$ .
Corresponding eigenvectors are $$v_1=\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \\ \end{pmatrix}, v_2=\begin{pmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \\ \end{pmatrix} , v_3=\begin{pmatrix} -1 \\ 1 \\ 0 \\ \end{pmatrix} $$
Therefore,
$$w=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \\ \end{pmatrix}$$
$$f(x)=x-(x, w)w = x-x^t w^2$$
$$Bx=x-x^t w^2$$
How can we solve the above problem?
First of all, a warning: I wouldn't write $(x,w)w$ as $x^Tw^2$ because matrix multiplication is not associative. I would write it as $(x^Tw)w$ to make it clear.
Now, for your question. Notice that:
This means that there are infinitely many possibilities for $w$, and you cannot find a general matrix $B$ as a single matrix, but rather as a function of $\alpha$ and $\beta$. Nevertheless, you can easily show that the image of $f$ is the eigenvalue of $\lambda$ by showing that:
If you show $1$ and $2$, you can then use the fact that for an orthonormal basis (where vectors are all length $1$) $w_1,w_2,w_3$, you can write any $x$ as
$$x = (x, w_1)w_1 + (x, w_2)w_2 + (x,w_3)w_3$$