Lets say you have the following premises. $$\{ (C \lor E) \rightarrow \neg M, R \rightarrow M, C \}$$ which is equivalent to $$\{ ((C \lor E) \rightarrow \neg M) \land (R \rightarrow M) \land C \}$$
Addition means that $\{P\} \vdash P \lor Q$.
Why does $$\{ ((C \lor E) \rightarrow \neg M) \land (R \rightarrow M) \land C \} \vdash C \lor E$$
without truth tables with using addition?
I could see how you form the following implication
$$\{ (C \lor E) \rightarrow \neg M, R \rightarrow M, \mathbf{ C \vdash C \lor E} \}$$
I do not get the idea behind the derivation. I know the question is broad but I feel like I have always been missing something.
I am relatively new to logic.
Perhaps, this will help you understand the problem more clearly. If you are given the following premises,
$$(C \lor E) \rightarrow \neg M\\ R \rightarrow M\\ C$$
You can instantly verify that $C \lor E$ is true because we are given $C$ is true as our third premises. Therefore, since $C$ is true, $C \lor E$ is also true.
Perhaps, you are wondering what we can deduce from the remaining premises.
Well, since we know $C$ is true because it is the third premises, we know $C \lor E$ is also true, so $\neg M$ must be true because of the first premises.
Since $\neg M$ is true, then $M$ is false, so $R$ must also be false for the second premises to be true.
We cannot determine anything useful about $E$. The premises holds if either $E$ is true or false since $C$ is true.
Edit: The statements above can be easily written out as expressions, but I feel that it is easier to understand in words rather than symbols.