In a Noetherian ring, it is known that every ideal contains a product of prime ideals.
Is there any example of a Noetherian ring in which an ideal is not equal to any product of prime ideals?
This is a natural question,which I didn't find even as an exercise in common references where the above property is stated.
My intuitive answer: consider a suitable subring of the ring of integers in a number field. For example, the ideal $(2,1+\sqrt{-5})$ in $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$; am I right?
In the polynomial ring $k[X,Y]$ over a field $k$ I claim that the ideal $I=\langle X^2,Y^2\rangle$ cannot be written as a product $I=\mathfrak p_1\cdot\cdots\mathfrak p_n$ where the $\mathfrak p_i$'s are prime ideals, not necessarily distinct.
Indeed, if this were the case we would have $I\subset \mathfrak p_i$ for every $i$ so that $$ \sqrt I= \langle X,Y\rangle\subset \sqrt {\mathfrak p_i}=\mathfrak p_i$$ Since $\mathfrak m :=\langle X,Y\rangle$ is maximal this forces $\mathfrak p_i=\mathfrak m$ for all $i$ and thus we would have $I=\mathfrak m^n$.
But this is false for any $n$ since $$ \mathfrak m=\langle X,Y\rangle\supsetneq \mathfrak m^2=\langle X,Y\rangle^2=\langle X^2,XY,Y^2\rangle\supsetneq I=\langle X^2,Y^2\rangle\supsetneq \mathfrak m^3\supsetneq \cdots \supsetneq \mathfrak m^n\supsetneq\cdots $$