This is most likely a silly question, but it's probably because I'm not very used to thinking about opposite categories, but how do I show that for every object $C$ of a category $\mathscr{C}$ one has $(\text{id}_C)^{\text{op}} = \text{id}_C$?
2026-04-23 05:51:17.1776923477
Identity morphism in an opposite category
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Fix $c \in C^{op}$. By definition, it is $c \in C$. Now, since $id_c : c \to c$ is an arrow in $C(c,c)$, once again by definition it has to be an arrow in $C^{op}(c,c)$. If $f \in C^{op}(c,d) = C(d,c)$, then
$$ f \circ_{op} id_c \stackrel{(\text{def})}{=} id_cf = f. $$
Similarly we obtain $id_c \circ_{op} g = g$ for any $g \in C^{op}(d,c)$.